Let $A \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ and let $f,g \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ be two functions on $A$ such that $f$ is bounded. Let $c$ be the limit point of $A$. Show that if $\lim \limits_{x \to c}g(x)=0$ then $\lim \limits_{x \to c}(g(x)f(x))=0$
My attempt:
Since $f$ is bounded, there exists $M>0$ such that $|f(x)|\leq M$ for all $x \in A$
Let $\epsilon>0$. Since $\lim_{x\rightarrow c}g(x)=0$, there exists a $\delta_1>0$ such that $$ |x-a|<\delta_1\Rightarrow |g(x)|<\epsilon $$
Not sure where to go from here