# Prove or disprove if this inequality holds [closed]

It's posible that for any $x,y,z\in\mathbb{R}$: $$\frac{|x-y|}{1+|x-y|}\leq \frac{|x-z|}{1+|x-z|}+\frac{|z-y|}{1+|z-y|}?$$ I'm triying to prove if this inequality holds or not, but I can't find a way to start, i tried finding counter examples but the rationals won't help... Any hint?

## closed as off-topic by Carl Mummert, user91500, Daniel W. Farlow, Aweygan, TastyRomeoFeb 23 '17 at 16:41

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• Could you clarify what x, y and z are? – mrnovice Feb 23 '17 at 2:47
• Sorry I forgot that... – Ragnar1204 Feb 23 '17 at 2:49

$$|x-y| \leq |x-z| + |z-y| + 2|x-z||z-y|+|x-z||z-y||y-x|$$ which is certainly true by the triangle inequality in $\mathbb{R}$, so the original inequality must also have been true.
By triangle inequality, $|x-y|\le |x-z|+|z-y|$. Also the function $f(t)= \frac{t}{1+t}$ is increasing on ${\mathbb R}_+$. Therefore,