How one can prove that the Moore-Penrose pseudoinverse can be calculated by using the limit concept as $$H^+=lim_{\delta \to 0^+} (\delta I+H^*H)^{-1}H^*$$, where $H^*$ denotes the Hermitian matrix.
I know this limit exists even if $A^*A$ is not invertible. Moreover, since $(H^*HH^*+\delta H^*)=H^*(HH^*+\delta I)=(H^*H+\delta I) H^*$, and
$(H^*HH^*+\delta H^*)$ and $H^*(HH^*+\delta I)H^*$ have inverses when $\delta > 0$
hence $$H^+=lim_{\delta \to 0^+} (\delta I+H^*H)^{-1}H^*$$ $$=lim_{\delta \to 0^+} H^*(\delta I+HH^*)^{-1}.$$
But, I couldn't go further to prove the limit definition is also Moore-Penrose pseudoinverse.i.e. $lim_{\delta \to 0^+} (\delta I+H^*H)^{-1}H^*=H^+=(H^*H)^{-1}H^*.$
I was wondering if anyone could help me?