I have studied set theory but I couldn't understand even the first line of the Godel's proof.
For instance, $\omega^n$ means the set of functions from $\omega$ to $n$ in my set theory, ZFC,
but the proof I got says;
" For $R\subset \omega^n$ a relation, $\chi_R:\omega^n \rightarrow \omega$ is given by
$\chi_R (\overline{a}) = 1$ if $\neg R(\overline{a})$
$\chi_R (\overline{a}) = 0$ if $R(\overline{a})$ "
To me, it has to be $\omega \times ... \times \omega$ ($n$ times) for $R$ to be a relation, not $\omega^n$. What's going on?
Why does this use $\overline{a}$ rather than $a$, if it designates arbitrary one? Any reason?
I am not even sure whether function here has the same meaning as function defined in ZFC.
And does $R(\overline{a})$ mean "$\overline{a} \notin R$" ?
I don't understand why it says $\Delta$, a set of sentences of our language. Why is it set, not just collection?
That is, why we cannot form a collection of sentences consist of $\exists, \forall$ and so on, which is not a set?
There are several terminologies i don't understand too.
Computable, $\mu$ and so on.
Since these theorems are provable in any axiomatic system, i don't know what in ZFC is true and what in ZFC is not true in arbitrary axiomatic system. In other words, what is always true in any axiomatic system?
Please recommend me a nice book to study this. I don't want to go any further in mathematical logic than to understand these theorems.