# How to solve this integral using special functions

I came across an integral of this form:

$$\int_{0}^{a}\frac{dx}{(a^{n}-x^{n})^{1/n}}$$ How do I solve this integral? I tried using this substitution: $x=asin^{2}(x)$ in order to reduce this to a beta form integral, but I a man getting the value $\frac{B(0,1)}{2}$. This happens to tending towards minus infinity as $B(0,1)=\frac{\Gamma{(0)}\Gamma{(1)}}{\Gamma{(1)}}\rightarrow-\infty$

Any help is appreciated.

Calculation:

inserting ansatz, the new integral obtained is: $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{2acos(\theta)sin(\theta)d\theta}{a^{n/n}(1-sin^{2n}(\theta))^{1/n}}$$ This further reduces to:

$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}{2(cos(\theta))^{-1}(sin(\theta))^{1}d\theta}$$ Comparing this to the standard Beta integral we get p to be 0 and q to be 1 and thus the integral tends towards minus infinity.

• Where is $n$ gone ? Double check your calculation. – Yves Daoust Feb 13 '17 at 13:22
• I see that you ignored my comment. – Yves Daoust Feb 13 '17 at 13:37
• Nope, I have edited in the calculations. – Spoilt Milk Feb 13 '17 at 13:39
• Not at all, this is still wrong. – Yves Daoust Feb 13 '17 at 13:40
• You mean the answer? – Spoilt Milk Feb 13 '17 at 13:41

WLOG, $a=1$.
Then with $x^n=t$,
$$I=\frac1n\int_0^1t^{1/n-1}(1-t)^{-1/n}dt=\frac1n\text{B}\left(\frac1n,1-\frac1n\right)=\frac1n\Gamma\left(\frac1n\right)\Gamma\left(1-\frac1n\right)=\frac{\dfrac\pi n}{\sin\dfrac\pi n}.$$
• A natural question at this point is whether one can obtain this answer directly rather than through special function properties. I suspect the right approach is to use a substitution to map $[0,1]\to [0,\infty)$ and then use a keyhole contour. But this kind of argument can likely be found in a proof of Euler's reflection formula. – Semiclassical Feb 13 '17 at 13:52