Im not sure if this proof is correct. In particular it seems that I can use an analogous argument to show that $$\bigcap_{n\in\Bbb N}(0,1/n)\neq\emptyset$$
which is false. The strategy that I used in the proof have it origin in a hint provided by the book were the exercise comes from. In the book it was hinted that we can define $F_k$ and $\bar{\Bbb B}(x_k,r_k)$ as I did below.
But, as I said before, it seems possible that using the same strategy we can prove false things. Maybe I used the hint provided by the book in a bad way, can someone take a look and verify or correct what I did? Thank you.
Let $D_k$ for all $k\in\Bbb N$ be open dense subsets of $\Bbb K^n$ and $D:=\bigcap_k D_k.$ Show that $D$ is dense in $\Bbb K^n$.
By a previous exercise we knows that finite intersections of $D_k$ are open and dense in $\Bbb K^n$. Define $F_k:=\bigcap_{j=0}^k D_j$, then $F_k\supseteq F_{k+1}$ for all $k\in\Bbb N$.
Now choose some $x_0\in\Bbb K^n$ and some $r_0>0$, then we have that $\Bbb B(x_0,r_0)\cap F_0$ is open, then exists some $x_1\in\Bbb K^n$ and some $r_1>0$ such that $\bar{\Bbb B}(x_1,r_1)\subsetneq \Bbb B(x_0,r_0)\cap F_0$, and $\Bbb B(x_1,r_1)\cap F_1$ is also open. Inductively we can define
$$\bar{\Bbb B}(x_{k+1},r_{k+1})\subsetneq\Bbb B(x_k,r_k)\cap F_k,\quad\forall k\in\Bbb N$$
and
$$F_k\supseteq F_{k+1}\implies \bar{\Bbb B}(x_k,r_k)\supsetneq\bar{\Bbb B}(x_{k+1},r_{k+1})$$
hence, by the nested interval property of $\Bbb R$, for every canonical projection
$$\pi_k:\Bbb K^n\to\Bbb K,\quad \langle x^{(0)},x^{(1)},\ldots,x^{(n)}\rangle\mapsto x^{(k)}$$
we knows that the sequence $(x_k^{(j)})$ converges to some $x^{(j)}\in\Bbb K$, hence $(x_k)\to x$ for some $x\in\Bbb K^n$, so $D$ cannot be empty. And because $x_0$ was arbitrary then $D$ is dense in $\Bbb K^n$.$\Box$
Expanding my question: I said that it seems that the same strategy can be used to prove a false statement as
$$\bigcap_{n\in\Bbb N}(0,1/n)\neq\emptyset$$
Let see why I think that: define $F_k=(0,1/k)$ and $\Bbb B(x_k,r_k)$ with $r_k:=\frac12\left(\frac1k+\frac1{k+1}\right)$. Hence we can write an analogous statement as in the proof above
$$\bar{\Bbb B}(x_{k+1},r_{k+1})\subsetneq\Bbb B(x_k,r_k)\cap F_k,\quad\forall k\in\Bbb N$$