I'm working on a homework assignment in which part of the question statement says that each of the classical Lie algebras can be described as the set of all matrices $X \in gl(n,\mathbb{C})$ satisfying
$$XM + MX^T = 0$$
for some particular choice of $M$. Specifically, it says that if $M$ is the $n\times n$ unit matrix $\mathbb{I}_n$, then $X \in A_{(n-1)} = su(n)$. But that doesn't seem to make sense. For $M = \mathbb{I}_n$, if my math is correct, the equation above indicates that $X$ should be limited to $n\times n$ antisymmetric matrices, which is not the same set as the $su(n)$ Lie algebra. So it seems that there is a mistake in the question statement. Is that correct?
As a secondary question, it'd be nice to get confirmation for the given definitions of the other classical algebras:
- Setting $M = \begin{pmatrix}1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & \mathbb{I}_n \\ 0 & \mathbb{I}_n & 0\end{pmatrix}$ implies $X \in B_n = so(2n+1)$
- Setting $M = \begin{pmatrix}0 & -\mathbb{I}_n \\ \mathbb{I}_n & 0\end{pmatrix}$ implies $X \in C_n = sp(n)$
- Setting $M = \begin{pmatrix}\mathbb{I}_n & 0 \\ 0 & \mathbb{I}_n\end{pmatrix}$ implies $X \in D_n = so(2n)$
I didn't tag this [homework]
because the question I'm asking is not the question I'm supposed to be solving in the assignment. I'm just looking for clarification on the instructions. (Also, I'm asking here because the instructor isn't available to contact right now)