This problem appeared multiple times in MSE -
UK 1998, Show that $hxyz$ is a perfect square.
Let $x,y,z$ be positive integers such that $\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{1}{z}$. Let $h=\gcd(x,y,z)$, Prove that $hxyz,h(y-x)$ are perfect squares
They seem not to solve my problem. Also the posts are old enough. This problem appeared in UK MO 1998. I found this solution in the book "104 Number Theory Problems from USA Math Camp" written by Titu Andrescu -
I don't understand the red boxed step. How we get
$c(b'-a') = a'b'g$ implies $g \mid c$?
why it cant occur that $g \mid (b'-a')$ and $a'b' \mid c$?
I don't understand from here till end.
Both of the linked question have answers with different approaches. But I want a solution which continues from here.