Just to add some variety to the list of answers, I'm going to go against the grain here and say that you can, in an albeit silly way, interpret $dy/dx$ as a ratio of real numbers.
For every (differentiable) function $f$, we can define a function $df(x; dx)$ of two real variables $x$ and $dx$ via $$df(x; dx) = f'(x)\,dx.$$
Here, $dx$ is just a real number, and no more. (In particular, it is not a differential 1-form, nor an infinitesimal.) So, when $dx \neq 0$, we can write:
$$\frac{df(x;dx)}{dx} = f'(x).$$
All of this, however, should come with a few remarks.
It is clear that these notations above do not constitute a definition of the derivative of $f$. Indeed, we needed to know what the derivative $f'$ meant before defining the function $df$. So in some sense, it's just a clever choice of notation.
But if it's just a trick of notation, why do I mention it at all? The reason is that in higher dimensions, the function $df(x;dx)$ actually becomes the focus of study, in part because it contains information about all the partial derivatives.
To be more concrete, for multivariable functions $f\colon R^n \to R$, we can define a function $df(x;dx)$ of two n-dimensional variables $x, dx \in R^n$ via
$$df(x;dx) = df(x_1,\ldots,x_n; dx_1, \ldots, dx_n) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}dx_1 + \ldots + \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_n}dx_n.$$
Notice that this map $df$ is linear in the variable $dx$. That is, we can write:
$$df(x;dx) = (\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}, \ldots, \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_n})
\begin{pmatrix}
dx_1 \\
\vdots \\
dx_n \\
\end{pmatrix}
= A(dx),$$
where $A$ is the $1\times n$ row matrix of partial derivatives.
In other words, the function $df(x;dx)$ can be thought of as a linear function of $dx$, whose matrix has variable coefficients (depending on $x$).
So for the $1$-dimensional case, what is really going on is a trick of dimension. That is, we have the variable $1\times1$ matrix ($f'(x)$) acting on the vector $dx \in R^1$ -- and it just so happens that vectors in $R^1$ can be identified with scalars, and so can be divided.
Finally, I should mention that, as long as we are thinking of $dx$ as a real number, mathematicians multiply and divide by $dx$ all the time -- it's just that they'll usually use another notation. The letter "$h$" is often used in this context, so we usually write $$f'(x) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x+h) - f(x)}{h},$$
rather than, say,
$$f'(x) = \lim_{dx \to 0} \frac{f(x+dx) - f(x)}{dx}.$$
My guess is that the main aversion to writing $dx$ is that it conflicts with our notation for differential $1$-forms.
EDIT: Just to be even more technical, and at the risk of being confusing to some, we really shouldn't even be regarding $dx$ as an element of $R^n$, but rather as an element of the tangent space $T_xR^n$. Again, it just so happens that we have a canonical identification between $T_xR^n$ and $R^n$ which makes all of the above okay, but I like distinction between tangent space and euclidean space because it highlights the different roles played by $x \in R^n$ and $dx \in T_xR^n$.