The problem asks to simplify the expression
$\arccos (\frac 3 5 \cos x + \frac 4 5 \sin x)$
where $x \in \; [\frac {-3\pi} 4 , \frac \pi 4]$.
Here's my approach.
Let $\frac 3 5 = r \cos y$ and $\frac 4 5 = r \sin y$.
Therefore, $r^2 = 1 \implies r = \pm 1\\ y = \arctan \frac 4 3$
Replacing $\frac 3 5$ and $\frac 4 5$ with their supposed values in the given expression we get,
$\arccos \; [r(\cos x \cos y + \sin x \sin y)]$
Now, 2 cases arise.
Case-I $(r = 1)$
The given expression becomes,
$\arccos \; [\cos(x - y)]\\ = x - y\\ = x - \arctan \frac 4 3$
Another equivalent answer is $\arctan \frac 4 3 - x$. This is the only answer according to my book.
Case-II $(r = -1)$
The given expression becomes,
$\arccos \; [-\cos(x - y)]\\ = \pi - (x - y)\\ = \pi - x + \arctan \frac 4 3$
Now this answer is what created the problem. My book doesn't give this answer. Is this answer wrong? Does it have to do something with the interval in which $x$ lies? Or is there something wrong with my approach. I mean if I suppose $\frac 3 5$ and $\frac 4 5$ as only $\cos y$ and $\sin y$ respectively, I wouldn't face this problem. Any help would be appreciated.
Edit
As I can suppose $\frac 3 5$ and $\frac 4 5$ to be $\cos y$ and $\sin y$ respectively, I believe there is nothing wrong is assuming them as $-\cos y$ and $-\sin y$ either. Or is there something wrong with this assumption? If there's nothing wrong with it then what about the answers we get with this assumption? Aren't they correct too? So shouldn't I suppose $\frac 3 5$ and $\frac 4 5$ as $\pm \cos y$ and $\pm \sin y$ respectively?