I have heard people say that you can't (or shouldn't) use the L'Hopital's rule to calculate $\lim\limits_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin x}x=\lim\limits_{x\to 0}\cos x=1$, because the result $\frac d{dx}\sin x=\cos x$ is derived by using that limit.
But is that opinion justified? Why should I be vary of applying L'Hopital's rule to that limit?
I don't see any problem with it. The sine function fulfills the conditions of the L'Hopital's rule.
Also, it is a fact that the derivative of sine is cosine, no matter how we proved it. Certainly there is a way to prove $\frac d{dx}\sin x=\cos x$ without using the said limit (if someone knows how, they can post it) so we don't even have any circular logic. Even if there isn't, $\frac d{dx}\sin x=\cos x$ was proven sometime without referencing the L'Hopital's rule so we know it is true. Why wouldn't we then freely apply the L'Hopital's rule to $\frac {\sin x}x$?
PS I'm not saying that this is the best method to derive the limit or anything, but that I don't understand why it is so frowned upon and often considered invalid.