Show that any prime ideal from such a ring is maximal. 
Let R be a commutative ring with an identity such that for all $r\in$ R, there exists some $n>1$ such that $r^n = r$. Show that any prime ideal is  maximal. (Atiyah and MacDonald, Introduction to Commutative Algebra, Chapter 1, Exercise 7.) 

Any hints?
 A: Hint: Reduce to the case that $R$ is an integral domain satisfying $\forall r \exists n (r^n=r)$, and show that $R$ is a field.
A: Let $\,D\,$ be any integer domain and let $\,d\in D\,$ be s.t. $\,d^n=d\,\,,\,\,1<n\in\Bbb N\,$ , then:
$$d^n=d\Longrightarrow d(d^{n-1}-1)=0\Longleftrightarrow d=0\,\,\,\text{or}\,\,\,d^{n-1}=1,$$
so if $\,d\,$ is not zero then it must be a unit.
$$-------o----------o---------o---$$
In our case: let $\,I\leq R\,$ be a prime ideal and let $\, r\in R\setminus I\,$, then:
$$\exists\,n\in\Bbb N\,\,s.t.\,\,r^n=r\Longrightarrow \left(r+I\right)^n=r^n+I=r+I\in R/I$$
Now use the first part with $\,D:=R/I\,\,\,,\,\,d=r+I\,$ and deduce $\,R/I\,$ is actually a field...
A: Proof: Let $\mathfrak{p}$ be a prime ideal in $A$. Note that since $\mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal we have that $A / \mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain.
We will show first that $A / \mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Choose $x + \mathfrak{p} \in A / \mathfrak{p}$ such that $x + p \neq 0_{A/ \mathfrak{p}}$. By hypothesis $x^n = x$ for some $n > 1$. Observe then that $$(x+\mathfrak{p})^n = x^n + \mathfrak{p} = x + \mathfrak{p}.$$
We then have that
\begin{align*}
(x+\mathfrak{p})^n = x + \mathfrak{p} &\implies (x+\mathfrak{p})^n - (x+\mathfrak{p}) = 0_{A/\mathfrak{p}} \\
&\implies (x + \mathfrak{p})\left((x+\mathfrak{p})^{n-1} - 1_{A/\mathfrak{p}}\right) = 0_{A/\mathfrak{p}} \\
&\implies x+ \mathfrak{p} = 0_{A/\mathfrak{p}} \ \ \ \text{or} \ \ \ (x+\mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/\mathfrak{p}} 
\end{align*}
where the last implication follows from the fact that $A / \mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain. Now since $x + \mathfrak{p} \neq 0_{A/\mathfrak{p}}$ we must have that $(x+\mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/\mathfrak{p}}$. But then we have $(x+ \mathfrak{p})(x+\mathfrak{p})^{n-2} = 1_{A/\mathfrak{p}}$ and so $(x+ \mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ is an inverse of $x + \mathfrak{p}$.
Note that since $n > 1$ it follows that $(x+ \mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ makes sense. Thus every non-zero element of $A/ \mathfrak{p}$ has an inverse and so $A / \mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Hence $\mathfrak{p}$ is maximal in $A$. $\square$
