$\newcommand{\Cl}{\mathscr{Cl}(V)}$$\newcommand{\ext}{\Lambda(V)}$Let $V$ be a finite dimensional vector space over a field with characteristic not equal to two. Assume we have made a choice of symmetric bilinear form for $V$.
It is known that the Clifford algebra $\Cl$ and the exterior algebra $\ext$ are isomorphic as vector spaces (this is an exercise in Greub's Multilinear Algebra, I believe it is mentioned in Wikipedia, and also see this and this and this related question on Math.SE).
Now obviously the Clifford algebra $\Cl$ with the Clifford product is not isomorphic as an algebra to the exterior algebra $\ext$ with the wedge product.
However, the wedge product is also defined on $\Cl$ and different from the Clifford product.
Question: Is the Clifford algebra $\Cl$ with the wedge product, i.e. not with the Clifford product, isomorphic as an algebra to the exterior algebra $\ext$ with the wedge product?
Attempt: I feel like this should follow immediately from the following two facts:
The Clifford algebra $\Cl$ and the exterior algebra $\ext$ are isomorphic as vector spaces.
A list of vectors $(v_1, \dots, v_n)$ is linearly independent if and only if its wedge product is non-zero: $$v_1 \wedge \dots \wedge v_n \not=0\,.$$
(I believe this second fact is correct, it is the content of at least one exercise in Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifolds if I remember correctly, although I haven't gotten around to doing it yet.)
Note: This is effectively a follow-up to this question I asked on MathOverflow.
Wedge product on the Clifford Algebra This might not be correct; if so, please explain why and/or give a pointer to a reference which explains why and I will also accept your answer.
(Note: what I had previously was definitely wrong, so here's a second attempt, again based on this document.) We can decompose the Clifford product $vw$ as follows: $$vw = \frac{1}{2}(vw + wv) + \frac{1}{2}(vw -wv) \,. $$ Noting that the first term on the RHS is symmetric and bilinear (in $v$ and $w$), the author Chisholm states that it is plausible that this could be the inner product. (See the top of p.4) I think if one takes the formal definition of Clifford algebra, it follows from the quotient relation $v^2 = \langle v, v \rangle$ that this makes sense. So then the second term on the RHS, $\frac{1}{2}(vw -wv)$, is denoted $v \wedge w$, one has from the definition that it is skew-symmetric. In the Euclidean case for $\mathbb{R}^3$, it follows from $\frac{1}{2}(vw+wv)=\langle v,w\rangle=|u||v|\cos\theta$ that $(v \wedge w)^2 = -|v|^2|w|^2 \sin^2\theta = -|v \times w|^2$.
Also, the wedge product of any element of the Clifford algebra $\Cl$ with a scalar is just scalar multiplication (I think).
I think the definition of the wedge product above generalizes so that for any $v_1, \dots, v_n \in V$: $$v_1 \wedge \dots \wedge v_n = \frac{1}{n!}\sum_{\sigma \in S_n} (\operatorname{sgn} \sigma) v_{\sigma(1)} \dots v_{\sigma(n)} \,, $$ where the multiplication is the Clifford product (see eq. (30) p.13 here) but I'm not sure.
If that formula is correct, then the answer to my question might automatically be affirmative due to a bijection between the Clifford algebra (with the wedge product) and alternating/skew-symmetric tensors of rank $\le n$. In other words the proposed formula is very similar to that given for creating the exterior algebra from the tensor algebra.
Following Qiaochu Yuan's suggestion in the comments, the wedge product of three vectors would for example then be: $$u \wedge v \wedge w = \frac{1}{6}uvw + \frac{1}{6}vwu + \frac{1}{6}wuv -\frac{1}{6}vuw -\frac{1}{6}uwv -\frac{1}{6}wvu \\ = \frac{1}{6}u(vw - wv)+\frac{1}{6}v(wu-uw)+\frac{1}{6}w(uv-vu) \\ = \frac{1}{3}u(v \wedge w) + \frac{1}{3}v(w \wedge u) + \frac{1}{3}w(u \wedge v) \,.$$
My hope is that this would be enough to define (via induction) what is meant by the wedge product of arbitrary elements of the Clifford algebra $\Cl$.
Basically the motivation for my claim/belief that the Clifford algebra $\Cl$ also has a wedge product is how many texts on the Clifford algebra of $\mathbb{R}^n$ with the Euclidean inner product treat the Clifford product (for vectors) essentially as a combination of the inner and wedge products, i.e. an extension of the wedge product.
This seems like it might be compatible with the formal definition of Clifford algebra, based on the fact that one should have $v^2 = vv = \langle v, v \rangle$, but I was hoping/assuming someone here might have already learned all of this and can confirm/deny that this is true before I try to verify it all in detail by myself only to find out that I have been trying to prove something false.
Wikipedia says that:
...if one takes the Clifford algebra to be a filtered algebra, then the associated graded algebra is the exterior algebra.
To be honest I don't know what that means, but it seems like it might be stronger than: "the Clifford algebra is isomorphic to the exterior algebra as a vector space".