This is a proposition in a book I'm reading whose proof I am unsure of how to fill in the details
Proposition
Suppose we have two smooth functions $\rho_{1,2} : (0,b) \to \mathbb{R}$ such that $$\rho_1'+ \rho_1^2 \leq \rho_2'+ \rho_2^2 $$ then $$\rho_2 - \rho_1 \geq \limsup_{t \to 0}\,(\, \rho_2(t) - \rho_1(t)\,)$$
Question
The author says that this follows from the easily verified fact that the function $(\rho_2 - \rho_1) e^F$ is increasing where $F$ is the antiderivative of $\rho_2 + \rho_1$ on $(0, b)$. This would be true if $\rho_2 - \rho_1$ is increasing but I don't think that this is the case. How does the lim sup inequality follow from the fact that $(\rho_2 - \rho_1) e^F$ is increasing?