I have the following two norms for mesurable complex valued functions $f \colon X\to \mathbb{C}$:
$$\|f \|_1 := \inf \big\{ c \geq 0 \colon \mu (\{ x \in X \colon |f(x)| > c \}) = 0 \big\}$$ and $$\|f\|_2 := \sup \big\{ |\lambda| \colon \lambda \in r_{\mathrm{ess}}(f)\big\},$$ where $$ r_{\mathrm{ess}}(f) := \big\{\lambda \in \mathbb{C} \colon \forall \varepsilon > 0: \mu(f^{-1}(B_\varepsilon(\lambda)) > 0 \big\},$$ where $B_\varepsilon(\lambda)$ denotes the open ball with radius $\varepsilon$ centered at $\lambda$.
It is easy to show, that $\|f\|_2 \leq \|f\|_1$ but I have not been able to prove the converse. Any suggestions?
I think the problem boils down to showing that $\mu\big(\;f^{-1}(\mathbb{C} \setminus r_{\mathrm{ess}}(f))\big) = 0$.
EDIT
One possible proof could be like this:
We exhaust the set $S := \mathbb{C} \setminus \overline{ B_{\|f\|_2}(0)}$ in two steps: First for all $m \in \mathbb{N}$ by annuli $$ S_{m,n} := S_{\|f\|_2 + \frac{1}{m}, \|f\|_2 + n} := \bigg\{ \lambda \in \mathbb{C} \colon \|f\|_2 + \frac{1}{m} \leq |\lambda | \leq \|f\|_2 + n\bigg\} $$ with $\mu(f^{-1}(S_{m,n})) = 0$, i.e. for $$ S_m := \bigcup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} S_{m,n} $$ we get $\mu(f^{-1}(S_{m})) = 0$.
Secondly, by considering $$ S = \bigcup_{m \in \mathbb{N}} S_{m} $$ we show the claim.
Proof. Let $m,n$ be given. Then, for all $\lambda \in S_{m,n}$ there exists $\varepsilon_\lambda > 0$ such that $$\mu\bigg(\big\{f^{-1}\big(B_{\varepsilon_\lambda}(\lambda)\big)\big\}\bigg) = 0.$$
But $S_{m,n}$ is compact, i.e. we get $\lambda_1,\dots,\lambda_k$ such that $$ S_{m,n} \subseteq \bigcup_{i = 1,\dots,k} B_{\varepsilon_{\lambda_i}} (\lambda_i). $$ Hence (assuming completeness of $\mu$) we have that $f^{-1}(S_{m,n})$ is a set of measure zero, as well as the countable union of all $S_{m,n}$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}$. So, for all $m \in \mathbb{N}$ the sets $f^{-1}(S_m)$ are of measure zero and the fact that $S = \bigcup_{m \in \mathbb{N}}$ gives the claim: We have $$\mu (\{ x \in X \colon |f(x)| > \|f\|_2 \}) = 0$$ i.e. $\|f\|_2 \geq \|f\|_1$. $\square$
What do you think?