The function $f (n) = (1 + 1 / n) ^ {n+1}$ is decreasing I cannot prove that the function $$f (n) = \left(1 + \frac1n\right) ^ {n + 1},$$ defined for every positive integer $n$, is strictly decreasing in $n$. I already tried to prove by induction and also tried to prove by calculating the difference between $f (n + 1)$ and $f (n)$.
I need help.
 A: May be this help:
$f_n/f_{n+1}=\frac{(1+1/n)^{n+1}}{(1+1/(n+1))^{n+2}}=(\frac{1+1/n}{1+1/(n+1)})^{n+1}\times\frac{1}{1+1/(n+1)}=(1+1/(n^2+2n))^{n+1}\times\frac{1}{1+1/(n+1)}$
But
$$(1+1/(n^2+2n))^{n+1}>1+\frac{n+1}{n^2+2n}>1+\frac{n+1}{(n+1)^2}=1+1/(n+1)$$
A: Use Binomial Theorem,
$\left(1+\frac1n\right)^{n+1}>\left(1+\frac1{n+1}\right)^{n+2}=\left(1+\frac1{n+1}\right)^{n+1}\left(1+\frac1{n+1}\right)$
$\iff \left(1+\frac1n\right)^{n+1}\Big/\left(1+\frac1{n+1}\right)^{n+1}>\left(1+\frac1{n+1}\right)$
but LHS is, 
$\left(1+\frac1{n(n+2)}\right)^{n+1}=1+\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n+1}\binom{n+1}{k}\left(\frac1{n(n+2)}\right)^k>1+\frac{n+1}{n(n+2)}>1+\frac{1}{n+1}$
A: $$f(n)=\exp{\left((n+1)\ln{\left(1+\frac1n\right)}\right)}$$ with $f(n)>0$. Hence $$f'(n)=f(n)\left(\ln{\left(1+\frac1n\right)-\frac1n}\right)$$ Now, use the inequality $\ln(1+x)<x$ for $x>-1$ with $x=\frac1n$ to conclude that $f'(n)<0$. 
A: Take the fraction
$$
\frac{f(n)}{f(n-1)}=\left(\frac{n+1}{n}\right)^{n+1}\bigg/\left(\frac{n}{n-1}\right)^n=\left(\frac{(n-1)(n+1)}{n^2}\right)^n\frac{n+1}{n}=\frac1{\left(1+\frac{1}{n^2-1}\right)^n}\frac{n+1}{n}.
$$
Using the induction, show that for $n\ge2$ and $x>-1$, $x\ne0$ (if $x=0$ then there would be a trivial equality) $(1+x)^n>1+nx$. For $n=2$ we have $(1+x)^2=1+2x+x^2>1+2x$. For $n+1$: $(1+x)^{n+1}=(1+x)^n(1+x)>(1+nx)(1+x)=1+(n+1)x+nx^2>1+(n+1)x$.
Using this inequality one can conclude that
$$
\left(1+\frac{1}{n^2-1}\right)^n>1+n\frac1{n^2-1}=\frac{n^2+n-1}{n^2-1},
$$
and
$$
\frac{f(n)}{f(n-1)}=\frac1{\left(1+\frac{1}{n^2-1}\right)^n}\frac{n+1}{n}<\frac{n^2-1}{n^2+n-1}\frac{n+1}{n}=\frac{n^3+n^2-n-1}{n^3+n^2-n}<1.
$$
Therefore, $f(n)$ is decreasing in $n$.
A: For $n>1$, we apply the AM-GM inequality to the numbers
$(1-1/n)$ taken $n$ times and $1$. Then 
$$\underbrace{\frac{n(1-\frac{1}{n})+1}{n+1}}_{\text{Arithmetic mean}}> \underbrace{\left(\left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^n\cdot 1\right)^{1/(n+1)}}_{\text{Geometric mean}}$$
that is
$$\frac{n^{n+1}}{(n+1)^{n+1}}> \frac{(n-1)^{n}}{n^{n}},$$
which is equivalent, to
$$f(n-1)=\left(1+\frac{1}{n-1}\right)^{n}> \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+1}=f(n)$$
and we may conclude that $n\to f(n)$ is strictly decreasing.
A: We could also apply the GM-HM inequality:
$$
\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+1}=1·\prod_{1}^{n+1}\frac{n+1}{n}>\left(\frac{n+2}{1+\sum_1^{n+1}\frac{n}{n+1}}\right)^{n+2}=\left(1+\frac{1}{n+1}\right)^{n+2}
$$
(Left side is strictly greater than right side since $1\ne1+\frac{1}{n}$, for every $n\in N^+$.)
Thus
$$
f(n)> f(n+1).
$$
