We have the well-known statement (Analysis I by Zorich, p.457):
Let $f: U(x) \to \mathbb{R}$ be a function defined in a neighbourhood $U(x) \subseteq \mathbb{R}^m$ of the point $x = (x^1,\dots,x^m)$. If the function $f$ has all partial derivatives $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x^1},\dots,\frac{\partial f}{\partial x^m}$ at each point of $U(x)$ and they are continuous at $x$, then $f$ is differentiable at $x$.
Now my question is, that somehow my lecture notes suggest, that when the partial derivatives are continuous at all points of $U(x)$, $f$ is then continuously differentiable, i.e. the map $U(x) \to \text{Hom}(\mathbb{R}^m,\mathbb{R})$ is continuous. How can this be seen?