When I've computed with Wolfram Alpha the definite integral $$\int_0^{\pi/2}\log \left( \frac{1}{n} +\tan^2x\right) dx,$$ (see the code integrate log(1/n+tan^2(x))dx, from x=0 to x=pi/2) then I said myself that should be very easy to get a result from this, since the $\lim_{n\to\infty}$ of our RHS is zero. It is easy to see if we write it as $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{2}\pi \left( \log\left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)+2\coth^ {-1}(\sqrt{n})\right) ,$$ and then we calculate the limit of the second summand by using the definiton of the hyperbolic cotangent.
And now
Question. Can you to prove by means different calculations and justifications that $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_0^{\pi/2}\log \left( \frac{1}{n} +\tan^2x\right) dx=0?$$ Are required those calculations or hints in your claims and how you justify your claims. Thanks.