This is a question in my study guide for linear algebra:
A set of vectors is a basis if it's linearly independent and spans the space. Why isn't the set $$\left\{ \left( \begin{array}{l} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \\ \end{array}\right) , \left( \begin{array}{l} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \\ \end{array}\right), \left( \begin{array}{l} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \\ \end{array}\right) \right\}$$ a basis of a planar subspace of ${\bf R}^3$?
(I will refer to the planar subspace as S)
I am currently pretty lost, I know the requirements for a basis are linear independence and spanning S, and the set given is clearly linearly independent but it also spans R3, and therefore because S is a subspace of R3 also spans S. S however is not stated to span R3 and because it is a planar subspace I suspect that it in fact does not span R3. If this is true then is this the reason the set cannot be a basis for S - because it is "overqualified" and spans more than just S?
Thank you for any help