I have been playing with this idea for a long time... I must warn you I am not proficient at math at all, so I would appreciate answers that I can understand :)

Could we define our math in such a way that π = 1 ?

If not, why not?


I now see this related question: Is π normal in base π?

I guess this is what I'm thinking about... Just like 2 in binary is 10, we seem to be able to assign numbers to π by choosing a different base. If we would choose base π, π itself would equal 10 right? Could we pick a base such that π = 1? Would it have advantages? Would it even be possible to use such base, since π is such a weird number?

Also see this question: What would a base $\pi$ number system look like?

  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Please read this question first. $\endgroup$ – J.-E. Pin Dec 8 '16 at 10:09
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks @J.-E.Pin that was a great read! Also I noticed I made a thinking error... π in base π would actually be 10, not 1. I'm pretty fascinated by the idea that changing the base could change π from being in one number category to being in another! It goes to show how deep the rabbit hole goes when it comes to math. I'm fascinated by this stuff but have a very hard time understanding explanations about it. $\endgroup$ – Stijn de Witt Dec 8 '16 at 10:22

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.