How would one go about proving that the limit of $$f:[0,1)\cup(1,2]\to\{1,2\}\\ x\mapsto \begin{cases} 1&\text{if }x\in[0,1)\\ 2&\text{if }x\in(1,2] \end{cases}$$ as $x\to 1$ does not exist? I attempted to proceed by contradiction.
Suppose $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 1} f(x)=L$ exists. Then $\forall\,\epsilon>0$, $\exists\,\delta>0$ such that $$0 < |x-1|<\delta\Longrightarrow |f(x)-L|<\epsilon$$
Now I know that it is impossible to find an appropriate $\delta$ if we take $\epsilon=\frac{1}{3}$ for example, since the leap $f$ at $x=1$ is of length $1$. So so far I wish to show that
$$0 < |x-1|<\delta\Longrightarrow |f(x)-L|<\frac{1}{3}$$ is impossible. But how can I proceed from here? I have to substitute $f(x)$ somehow, but I'm not sure how to go about it.
Also, note that I do not wish to involve Left-hand/Right-hand limits at this point (we haven't covered those yet).