Question number 1: Is this correct?
Question number 2: If yes, would be correct if for the conclusion I use x instead of y? For the context, it seems clear that the right choice was y. However, as x and y are variables I was wondering if it would be the same. Thank you so much for your help!
Translate to logic symbols:
There is a man whom all men despise. Therefore, there is a man who despises himself.
$\exists y \forall x (Mx \land My \land Dxy)$
$\exists y (My \land Dyy)$