Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and let $q(x,y)={d(x,y)\over 1+d(x,y)}$ be another metric(which we know it is). Show that $d(x,y)$ and ${d(x,y)\over d(x,y)+1}$ are topologically equivalent.
I used the definition that metrics $f,g$ on metric spaces $(X,d/ q)$ are called equivalent if $U\subset X$ is open with respect to $f$ if and only if it is open with respect to $g$.
I managed one direction: $q(x,y)\le d(x,y)$. Let $U\subset X$ be open with respect to $q$ and let $x\in U$. So there exists $r>0$ such that $B_q(x,r)\subset U$. For any $y\in X$, such that $d(x,y)<r$, $q(x,y)\le d(x,y)<r$. That implies that $y\in B_d(x,r)\Rightarrow y\in B_q(x,r)\Rightarrow B_{d}(x,r)\subset B_q(x,r)\subset U$ (So I hope. All those transitions seem a little counterintuitive.). With that uncertainty in mind, I am a little lost in the other direction.
I would appreciate any help on the issue.