The question is:
Let $\{f_n\} \subset (C[0,1], \lVert\cdot\rVert_p)$, where $f_n(x)=1-nx$, if $0\leq x \leq \frac1n$, and $0$ otherwise. For which values of $p$, $1 \leq p \leq \infty$, is $\{f_n\}$ a Cauchy sequence? When it is a Cauchy sequence, does it converge?
So, I know the definition of a Cauchy sequence. You have to start by letting $\epsilon > 0$, then there exists an $N \in \mathbb{N}$, such that if $n > m \geq N$, then $\lVert f_n - f_m \rVert_p < \epsilon$. But I can't even graph the function described above. Also, I don't know how a cauchy sequence can be related to the $\lVert \cdot \rVert_p$ .
If anyone could shed some light on this question, I would deeply appreciate it.