Prove that the series $$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{\cos^2k}{k+1}$$ diverges.
I am told to use the following approach:
Suppose that the above series converges and then conclude that under this hypothesis, $$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin^2{2k}}{2k+1}$$ also converges and find a contradiction.
The first part of the mark scheme uses a chain of inequalities which eventually results in the following:
$a_k \geq \frac{1}{4} \frac{\sin^2{2k}}{2k+1} := b_{2k}$ (where $a_k=\frac{cos^2k}{k+1}$ )
Then, it states: "therefore by the comparison test, the series $$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}b_{2k} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin^2{2k}}{2k+1}$$ converges absolutely."
I dont get why the above is true, because:
I fail to see the comparison test in action. The above just shows that $a_k$ is bigger than a fourth of the desired sequence. How can this imply convergence? (I may be neglecting some constant in front, but in the definition given in class, there was no constant provided).
Since when does $$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}b_{2k} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin^2{2k}}{2k+1}$$ ??? (where did the $1/4$ go?, or is this just a notation issue and $b_{2k}$ was defined without the $1/4$?)
If someone could clarify for me these (probably trivial) issues, I would be grateful.