I'm working through the following problem in Royden (Chapter 5, exercise 7) and would like to understand the solution:
Let $E$ have finite measure, $\{f_n\}\to f$ in measure on $E$, and $g$ be a measurable function on $E$ that is finite $a.e.$ on $E$. Prove that $\{f_n\cdot g\}\to f\cdot g$ in measure.
$\newcommand{\N}{\mathbb{N}}$ Proof. Since $g$ is finite a.e. on $E$, $m(\bigcap_{n\in\N}\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,g(x)>n\})=0\implies \forall\epsilon>0\,\,\, \exists N_1\in\N$:$n\geq N_1 \implies m\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|g(x)|>n\}<\epsilon$.
So, let $\epsilon>0$ be given. Then there exists $M\in\N$ so that $m\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|g(x)|>M\}<\frac{\epsilon}{2}$.
Let $\eta>0$. Since $\{f_n\}\to f$ in measure on $E$, $\exists N\in\N :n\geq N\implies m\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|f_n(x)-f(x)|>\frac{\eta}{2M}\}<\frac{\epsilon}{2}$. Letting $n\geq N$, notice that: \begin{align*} &\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|(f_n\cdot g)(x)-(f\cdot g)(x)|>\frac{\eta}{2}\}\\ =&\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|g(x)\cdot f_n(x)-g(x)\cdot f(x)|>\frac{\eta}{2}\}\\ =&\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|g(x)|\cdot|f_n(x)-f(x)|>\frac{\eta}{2}\}\\ \subset &\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|g(x)|>M_1\}\cup \{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|f_n(x)-f(x)|>\frac{\eta}{2M}\}.\\ \end{align*} We then infer that: \begin{align*} &m\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|(f_n\cdot g)(x)-(f\cdot g)(x)|>\frac{\eta}{2}\}\\ \leq &m\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|g(x)|>M_1\}+m\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|f_n(x)-f(x)|>\frac{\eta}{2M}\}\\ < &\frac{\epsilon}{2}+\frac{\epsilon}{2}\\ =&\epsilon.\\ \end{align*} $\blacksquare$
Specifically, I'm having some trouble understanding why: $\{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|g(x)|\cdot|f_n(x)-f(x)|>\frac{\eta}{2}\} \subset \{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|g(x)|>M_1\}\cup \{x\in E\,\,|\,\,|f_n(x)-f(x)|>\frac{\eta}{2M}\}$.
Sorry if I'm being a bit handwavy. Any constructive feedback will be helpful!