I want to calculate $\lim\limits_{(x, y)\rightarrow (1, -1)}\dfrac{(x-y)^2-4}{x^2+y^2-2}$.
I already know that $\lim \limits_{x\rightarrow 1}\lim\limits_{y\rightarrow -1}\dfrac{(x-y)^2-4}{x^2+y^2-2} = \lim\limits_{y\rightarrow -1}\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 1}\dfrac{(x-y)^2-4}{x^2+y^2-2} = 2$, so if the limit exists, it equals $2$. But how do I prove that?
I can't use polar coordinates since $(x, y) \not\to (0,0)$, I've also failed to find a counterexample of a sequence with different limit than $2$.