This question might take a while. Bear with me.
I'm going to explain how I solve these up to the point where this textbook does something unusual, then I'll explain why it's unusual to me and ask for advice.
Let's say I have:
$a\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+b\frac{dy}{dx}+cy=0$
I'd start with assuming $a=0$:
$b\frac{dy}{dx}+cy=0$
Then I rearrange:
$\frac{dy}{dx}+\frac{c}{b}y=0$
The general solution of this is:
$y=ke^{-\int\frac{c}{b}dx}$
Let's assume that b and c are known constants.
Then I figure out the 2nd and 3rd derivatives:
$y' = -\frac{kc}{b}e^{-\frac{c}{b}x}$
$y'' = \frac{kc^2}{b^2}e^{-\frac{c}{b}x}$
Now, the textbook I'm using does this. Let's say that:
$m=-\frac{c}{b}$
So the derivatives above become
$y=ke^{mx}$
$y' = kme^{mx}$
$y'' = km^2e^{mx}$
I then substitute this into my original equation to get:
$akm^2e^{mx} +bkme^{mx}+cke^{mx}=0$
or
$ke^{mx}(am^2 +bm+c)=0$
The idea, now is that since $ke^{mx}$ can't be zero, I solve this quadratic in $m$ and proceed from there.
However, this is my sticking point. $m=-\frac{c}{b}$ So
$ke^{mx}(am^2 -c +c)=0$
$ke^{mx}(am^2)=0$
Since $ke^{mx}$ again can't be zero, I really have to solve
$(am^2)=0$
or
$(\frac{ac^2}{b^2})=0$
$\frac{ac}{b}=0$
$ac=0$
At this point, I don't know if I'm alone in forest having wandered off the path hours ago. :)
Look, guys: I KNOW that assuming that a is zero reduced this to a first order DE. I do this, as I have already explained, to find y in terms of b and c. Then, I take this new y and substitute into my original equation WHERE a IS NOT ZERO.
MY QUESTION IS, if I have to solve a quadratic in m, but the quadratic falls apart, then what? (To reiterate, a in the quadratic is NOT zero.)
later edit: As far as I can tell, saying that -c/b =m seems to be a clever way to allow the quadratic to exist and then move onto finding roots, thereby allowing me to write a general solution in terms of those roots. So that's my answer. At least, it's the best I have found so far.