Analytic Geometry proof of orthogonality in triangle geometry In triangle $ABC$, $AB = AC$, $D$ is the midpoint of $\overline{BC}$, $E$ is the foot of the perpendicular from $D$ to $\overline{AC}$, and $F$ is the midpoint of $\overline{DE}$. Prove that $\overline{AF}$ is perpendicular to $\overline{BE}$.

My first approach was to align the triangle in the first quadrant, on the x-coordinates and started calculating slopes and positions of points.  But then things got messy real fast, i'm afraid I'm approaching this problem the wrong way.  Is there a better way?  No trigonometry just yet!  Solutions are greatly appreciated.  Thanks in advance!
 A: But maybe if you saw the geometric proof, you would change your mind about looking for an analytic proof of this fact. 
Take $K$ to be the midpoint of segment $CE$. Then $KF$ is a mid-segment in triangle $DCE$ and therefore $KF$ is parallel to $CD$. Furthermore, $CD$ is orthogonal to $AD$, which  means that line $KF$ is orthogonal to $AD$ too. Hence the lines $DE$ and $KF$ are altitudes in triangle $DKA$ and consequently point $F$ is the orthocenter of $DKA$. Therefore, the line $AF$ is the third altitude in triangle $DKA$ and so $AF$ is orthogonal to $DK$. The segment $DK$ however is mid-segment of triangle $BCE$ so $DK$ is parallel to $BE$. Thus $BE$ is orthogonal to $AF$.

A: 
We may embed the construction in the complex plane, assuming $D=0$, $C=1, B=-1$ and $A=ri$. With such assumptions we may compute $E$, then $F=\frac{E}{2}$ and check that $\frac{F-A}{E-B}$ is a purely imaginary number, proving $AF\perp BE$.
A: Here is a vectorial proof with a little trigonometry at the end. We can transform our objective thus:
$$\tag{2}AF \perp BE \ (a) \ \ \ \ \iff \ \ \ 2\vec{AF} \cdot
\vec{BE}=0 \ (b)$$
(symbol $\cdot$ meaning "dot product"). The LHS of (2b) can be transformed thus:
$$(\vec{AD}+\vec{AE}) \cdot (\vec{BD}+\vec{DE})=\vec{AD}\cdot\vec{DE} + \vec{AE} \cdot \vec{BD} $$
(taking into account the orthogonality of AD and BD, and AE and DE).
Let $\alpha=\widehat{BAC}=\widehat{DAC}$ and $h$ be the length of altitude $AD$.
It is easy to establish that:
$$\begin{cases} \vec{AD} \cdot \vec{DE}&=&- h \times h \sin(\alpha) & \ \ \text{(the minus sign is essential)}\\ \vec{AE} \cdot \vec{BD} &=& h \cos(\alpha) \times h \tan(\alpha) & \end{cases}$$
(where $\times$ is the ordinary multiplication of real numbers). 
Adding these two results gives $0$ ; we have thus obtained the RHS of (2).
A: I know a coordinate geometric proof will hurt the true lovers of geometry, but still I would like to present one as the OP found it MESSY.
Without loss of generality, position the triangle as $A=(0,0)\ B=(-1,k)\ C=(1,k)$
Then check that $D=(0,k)$
Let $E$ be $(a,ka):a\in(0,1)$ 
By the problem , $${ka-k\over a}\cdot k=-1\implies a={k^2\over k^2+1}$$
So $E=\left({k^2\over k^2+1},{k^3\over k^2+1}\right)$
Another simple calculation reveals $F$ to be $\left({k^2\over 2(k^2+1)},{2k^3+k\over 2(k^2+1)}\right)$
Now its trivial that $$\text{Slope}_{BE}={{k^3\over k^2+1}-k\over {k^2\over k^2+1}+1 }=-{k\over 2k^2+1}={-1\over \text{Slope}_{AF}}$$
