For the definition of germ, please see below.
I am having some difficulty internalizing the concept of germ due to an inability to think of concrete examples, which led to me having the following questions:
1. Are the germs of holomorphic functions (at a point $p$) simply single-element equivalence classes, because the Identity theorem implies that any two holomorphic functions which agree identically on a neighborhood are identical on their entire domains of definition?
2. Can one describe the members of the equivalence class of a smooth germ explicitly for simple enough examples? E.g. Let $M=\mathbb{R}$, and let $f(x)=x$, then is the germ of $x$ at $0$ just $$[x]_p=\{g\in C^{\infty}: g(0)=0, g'(0)=1,g^{(r)}(0)=0\ \forall\ r \ge 1 \}? $$
3. Do similar results hold for the members of the equivalence class of a $C^k$ germ, e.g. $$[x]_p = \{ g \in C^k: g(0)=0, g'(0)=1, g^{(r)}(0)=0\ \forall\ 1 \le r \le k \}? $$
4. Two distinct (real or complex) analytic functions cannot coincide on a neighborhood of a point -- is this the smallest class of functions for which this holds? (I.e. are germs non-trivial precisely for classes of functions which do not always coincide with their Taylor series, and are the equivalence classes simply the functions with the same Taylor series up to a certain order?)
My conjectures are motivated by the idea of derivatives being "infinitesimal" or local approximations of functions, as well as the fact that the standard example of a non-analytic smooth function is the only function I can think of which belongs to the germ of another function, but other than this intuition I have no reason to think that the germs of analytic, smooth, or differentiable functions can be described in the manner above.
That and this comment in Lee (on p.72):
The germ definition has a number of advantages. One of the most significant is that it makes the local nature of the tangent space clearer, without requiring the use of bump functions. Because there do not exist analytic bump functions, the germ definition of tangent vectors is the only one available on real-analytic or complex-analytic manifolds.
The only reason I might suspect that these are false is that they would lead to a much simpler definition (in my opinion) then the one given in the book. On the other hand, a definition of germs based on equality of Taylor coefficients would not generalize very well to classes of continuous functions and the like, which is perhaps the intent.
Definition: (taken from p.71 of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds by John Lee):
A smooth function element on [a smooth manifold] $M$ is an ordered pair $(f,U)$, where $U$ is an open subset of $M$ and $f: U \to \mathbb{R}$ is a smooth function. Given a point $p \in M$, let us define an equivalence relation on the set of all smooth function elements whose domains contain $p$ by setting $(f,U) \sim (g,V)$ if $f \equiv g$ on some neighborhood of $p$. The equivalence class of a function element $(f,U)$ is called the germ of $f$ at $p$. The set of all germs of smooth functions at $p$ is denoted by $C_p^{\infty}(M)$... Let us denote the germ at $p$ of the function element $(f,U)$ simply by $[f]_p$; there is no need to include the domain of $U$ in the notation, because the same germ is represented by the restriction of $f$ to any neighborhood of $p$. To say that two germs $[f]_p$ and $[g]_p$ are equal is simply to say that $f \equiv g$ on some neighborhood of $p$, however small.
Related questions (in which I could not find the answer): (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)