I’m working on Nualart’s book “The Malliavin calculus and related topics” and in the proof of lemma 1.1.3 he mentions that the operators $P_n$ have their operator norm bounded by 1. I fail to see why, can you help me? Using Jensen’s inequality I get a norm more akin to $2^n$, so I guess Jensen is too weak to prove that?
Quoting the proof:
Let $u$ be a process in $L^2_a([0,1]\times\Omega)$ ($L^2_a$ are the adapted processes w.r.t Brownian motion) and consider the sequence of processes defined by $\tilde u^n(t)=\sum_{i=1}^{2^n-1}2^n\left(\int_{(i-1)2^{-n}}^{i2^{-n}}u(s)ds\right)1_{]i2^{-n},(i+1)2^{-n}]}(t)$.
We claim that the sequence converges to $u$ in $L^2([0,1]\times\Omega)$. In fact define $P_n(u)=\tilde u^n$. Then $P_n$ is a linear operator in $L^2([0,1]\times\Omega)$ with norm bounded by one.