I read on the English Wikipedia page on covering spaces that "a covering space is a universal covering space if it is simply connected", which looks like an actual definition of a covering space being a universal covering space.
However, I read in other sources other definitions of a covering space. For example the French Wikipedia page on covering spaces (Revêtement) uses definition 4), infra.
So, which one of these definitions is the "correct" one ?
(1) The mapping $q : D \to X$ is a universal cover of the space $X$ if $D$ is simply connected ;
(2) The mapping $q : D \to X$ is a universal cover of the space $X$ if for any cover $p : C \to X$ of the space $X$ where the covering space $C$ is connected, there exists a covering map $f : D \to C$ such that $p \circ f = q$ ;
(3) The mapping $q : D \to X$ is a universal cover of the space $X$ if it is a Galois cover and for any cover $p : C \to X$ of the space $X$ where the covering space $C$ is connected, there exists a covering map $f : D \to C$ such that $p \circ f = q$ ;
(4) The mapping $q : D \to X$ is a universal cover of the space $X$ if it is a Galois cover and for any cover $p : C \to X$ of the space $X$, there exists a covering map $f : D \to C$ such that $p \circ f = q$.
It is true that $(1) \implies (3) \implies( 2)$ and $(4) \implies (3), (2)$.
Is it also true that $(1) \implies (4)$ ? $(2) \implies (1)$ ? $(3) \implies (1)$ ?
For example, using definitions 1), 2) or (3), it is clear that "the" universel cover of a point is itself, and the cover mapping $q : \{ \bullet \} \to \{ \bullet \}$ is the identity. Indeed :
Using definition 1), the point is simply connected, so its universal cover is itself. Using definition 2) or 3), note that the identity map $q : \{ \bullet \} \to \{ \bullet \}$ is a Galois cover and that the covers of $\{ \bullet \}$ are all the non-empty discrete spaces, so the only connected ones are the 1-point spaces $C$ (the cover mapping being the natural bijection $p : C \to \{ \bullet \}$). Therefore there exists a covering map $f : \{ \bullet \} \to C$ (which is just $p^{-1}$) which satisfies $p \circ f = q$.
However, we can't prove using definition 4) that "the" universel cover of a point is itself, since if $p : F \to \{ \bullet \}$ is a non-connected cover where $F$ is a discrete space of cardinality at least 2, there is no covering map $f : \{ \bullet \} \to F$ such that $p \circ f = q$ (as a covering map should be surjective).
So my final question is :
Is the universal cover of a 1-point space really a 1-point space ?
Thanks.