I want to prove that for $M$ an $R$-module and $\mathfrak p$ a prime ideal in $R$, $$M_{\mathfrak p}\ne0\iff \operatorname{Ann}M\subseteq \mathfrak p.$$
This is equivalent to $M_{\mathfrak p}=0 \iff R\setminus \mathfrak p \not\subset R\setminus \operatorname{Ann}M$. I have a problem with implication from left to right.
What I've done:
Note that
- $M_{\mathfrak p}=0\iff \forall m \in M$ $\exists s \in R\setminus{\mathfrak p}$ s.t. $sm=0$
- $R\setminus \mathfrak p \not\subset R\setminus \operatorname{Ann}M \iff \exists t\in R$ s.t. $t\in (R\setminus \mathfrak p)\cap \operatorname{Ann}M$
So if $R\setminus \mathfrak p \not\subset R\setminus \operatorname{Ann}M$, then we can take $t$ from $2.$ for $s$ in $1$. But the other way round seems to be false in general at a first glance, for these $s$ in fact depend on $m$, so I cannot conclude that they are in $\operatorname{Ann}M$ ($a$ is in $\operatorname{Ann}M$ if for every $m\in M$ we have $am=0$). How do I proceed?