For $y=f(t,u_1,\ldots,u_m)$ with $u_i$ depending on $t$, i.e. $y$ not only directly but also indirectly depending on $t$:
Wolfram says: $\frac{\partial y}{\partial t}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial f}{\partial u_1}\frac{\partial u_1}{\partial t}+ \ldots+\frac{\partial f}{\partial u_m}\frac{\partial u_m}{\partial t}$
while Wikipedia says:
$\frac{df}{dt}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial f}{\partial u_1}\frac{du_1}{dt}+ \ldots+\frac{\partial f}{\partial u_m}\frac{du_m}{dt}$
Is it not unambiguous at Wolfram that partial and total derivative are used with the same symbols? From what I have read, total derivatives take into account the indirect effects of $t$, while partial derivatives do not. Even if the expression left to the equal sign here could be chosen freely (i.e. $\frac{df}{dt} \equiv \frac{\partial y}{\partial t}$): Does Wolfram not disregard that also $u_i$ could be some function that, again, depends indirectly on $t$? If I understand correctly, the partial derivative would neglect that, the total would not. Is this correct? Is Wolfram unprecise here because it uses $\frac{\partial u_1}{\partial t}$ instead of $\frac{du_1}{dt}$?
Also, the Wolfram expression for the total derivative confuses me... Using the partial derivative on a variable that is the result of a function seems even more unprecise. $\frac{\partial y}{\partial t}$ is the total derivative and $\frac{\partial f}{\partial t}$ is the partial derivative... what is the intuition/reasoning for this?