Explain why the columns of an $n \times n$ matrix $A$ are linearly independent when $A$ is invertible.
The proof that I thought of was:
If $A$ is invertible, then $A \sim I$ ($A$ is row equivalent to the identity matrix). Therefore, $A$ has $n$ pivots, one in each column, which means that the columns of $A$ are linearly independent.
The proof that was provided was:
Suppose $A$ is invertible. Therefore the equation $Ax = 0$ has only one solution, namely, the zero solution. This means that the columns of $A$ are linearly independent.
I am not sure whether or not my proof is correct. If it is, would there be a reason to prefer one proof over the other?
As seen in the Wikipedia article and in Linear Algebra and Its Applications, $\sim$ indicates row equivalence between matrices.