I am studying for the math subject GRE and came across the following problem from a previous exam (Form GR0568, found at "www.math.ucla.edu/~cmarshak/GRE1.pdf", question #25). The problem states:
- Let $\{a_n\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ be defined recursively by $a_1 = 1$ and $a_{n+1} = \left( \frac{n+2}{n} \right) a_n$ for $n \geq 1$. Then $a_{30}$ is equal to
(A) (15)(31)
(B) (30)(31)
(C) $\frac{31}{29}$
(D) $\frac{32}{30}$
(E) $\frac{32!}{30!2!}$
My approach was as follows: $a_2 = \frac{2+2}{2} = \frac{4}{2}$ therefore, we have
$$ a_{30} = \left( \frac{31}{29} \right) \left( \frac{30}{28} \right) ... \left( \frac{5}{3} \right) \left( \frac{4}{2} \right) \left( \frac{1}{1} \right) = \frac{31!}{3!29!} = \frac{(31)(30)}{6} = 31(5) $$
However, this is not even one of the answers! The answer is supposed to be (A), but I don't see how this is possible. If $a_1$ was not specially set to 1 but instead followed the same pattern to be $(1+2)/1 = 3$, then the extra factor of 3 would make the answer (15)(31) as expected, but unless there was a typo on a real subject math test that was used for years, I am going to go bald from all the head scratching I am doing for this problem.
Can anyone point out where I am going wrong on a seemingly simple problem?