I'm not sure if this question makes sense or not, but if one assesses the following question:
Are $\neg p \lor q \lor p$ and $p \lor \neg p$ logically equivalent?
How could they be? The question doesn't seem to make sense.
Let's assume a truth table:
Is this what the question is asking? It's a very vague question. I am just wondering if it is asking that given $p$ and $q$, that the values are equivalent based on the values taken from the truth table. Thanks!