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I spend too much time on this one,and I just can't find a way to prove anything. Please, will someone help me?

Does $$ \sum _{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\ln\left(n!\right)}$$ converge?

P.S. Does anybody knows where can I find (online) these kind of tasks (I mean, with this kind of difficulty). Thank you (in advance). :)

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    $\begingroup$ Well, you don't want to start at n=1 I would assume $\endgroup$ – imranfat Aug 23 '16 at 21:07
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No, it does not.

It is standard to see that $\ln n! \sim_{n\to\infty} n\ln n$, so that the series with positive terms $\sum_n \frac{1}{\ln n!}$ and $\sum_n \frac{1}{n \ln n}$ have same nature by theorems of comparison.

But the latter diverges, as a Bertrand series.$^{(\dagger)}$


Theorem. (Bertrand series) The series $\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n^a(\ln n)^b}$ converges if, and only if, (i) $a>1$ or (ii) $a=1$ and $b>1$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Standard with or without Stirling ? $\endgroup$ – Gabriel Romon Aug 23 '16 at 21:10
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    $\begingroup$ Might want to reference Stirling's approximation . $\endgroup$ – Alexis Olson Aug 23 '16 at 21:10
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    $\begingroup$ @AlexisOlson See the link provided. No need for Stirling, actually. $\endgroup$ – Clement C. Aug 23 '16 at 21:12
  • $\begingroup$ @LeGrandDODOM without: Look at $(\sum_{k=1}^n \ln k)/(n\ln n)$ with Stolz-Cesaro. $\endgroup$ – zhw. Aug 23 '16 at 21:14
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    $\begingroup$ @zhw. The comments are not really the place for a debate on "what is simpler, and what does 'simple' mean in terms of a tradeoff between conciseness of the proof and level of the tools used in it." As for the question itself, all that is needed is that $\ln n! \leq n\ln n$, which is actually immediate since $\ln n! = \sum_{k=1}^n \ln k \leq \sum_{k=1}^n \ln n$. $\endgroup$ – Clement C. Aug 23 '16 at 21:28
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For all $n >1$, we have $n^n > n!$. Therefore, $\displaystyle \frac{1}{n^n} < \frac{1}{n!}$, and further $\displaystyle \frac{1}{\ln(n^n)} < \frac{1}{\ln(n!)}$ since $\ln(x)$ is an increasing function. By a property of logarithms, we have $\displaystyle \frac{1}{\ln(n^n)} = \frac{1}{n\ln(n)}$.

Since $\displaystyle \sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n \ln(n)}$ can be shown to diverge with, e.g., the integral test, it follows that $\displaystyle \sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{\ln(n!)}$ diverges per the comparison test.

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