Let $X(t)$ be a stationary Gaussian process with mean $\mu = 0$, variance $\sigma^2 = 1$ and Gaussian correlation function:
$$\rho(\tau) = \exp\left(-\pi\left(\frac{\tau}{\theta}\right)^2\right)$$
Where $\tau = t_1 - t_2$. The parameter $\theta$ is known as the correlation length and satisfies:
$$\theta = 2\int_0^{\infty} \rho(\tau)\, d\tau$$
As $\theta \rightarrow \infty$ the correlation between points of the process becomes one and the realisations of $X(t)$ are homogeneous. The variance of any single realisation of $X(t)$ is zero. However I believe that the variance of this process $\sigma^2$ is still equal to 1 (considering multiple realisations).
However consider the case where $\theta \rightarrow 0$. The points of the process become completely uncorrelated and I have read that $X(t)$ becomes a white noise Gaussian process. I have also read that the variance of a continuous white noise process is infinite.
If $\theta \rightarrow 0$ does the correlation function $\rho(\tau)$ become the Dirac delta function? Does the variance of the process become infinite?