Let $H, K$ be conjugate subgroups of $G$. Then we can regard $G/H, G/K$ as G-sets defining $g'(gH) := (g'g)H$ and similarly for $K$.
Two G-sets $X, Y$ are said to be isomorphic if there exists some bijection $\phi: X \rightarrow Y$ such that
$$\phi(gx) = g\phi(x) \; \forall x \in X, g \in G$$
My intuition seems to be that $\phi(H) = K$ and so $\phi(gH) = gK$, but I'm having trouble trying to show $\phi$ is well defined, since $\phi(ghH) = ghK =_{?} gK = \phi(gH)$ does not look right.
I've found this question here in this site, but the only answer is rather brief and I don't fully understand what is going on, as seems to be the case for the OP. Anyway, it was never restated or further detailed, so I'd really appreciate if someone would care to give some insight into it.