I was just wondering if this proof is correct.
I'm trying to prove that if $\lim_{x\to 0}f(x)=L$ then $\lim_{x\to 0}f(cx)=L$ for any nonzero constant $c$.
Proof:
If $\lim_{x \to 0}f(cx)=L$ then there exists some $\delta$ such that
$0<|x|<\delta \implies |f(cx)-L|<\epsilon$. We have$ |f(cx)-L|=|f(cx)-L+f(x)-f(x)|$. Applying the triangle inequality gives
$|f(cx)-L|=|f(cx)-L+f(x)-f(x)|\leq|f(cx)-f(x)|+|f(x)-L|$. So it suffices to find some $\delta$ such that
$0<|x|<\delta \implies |f(cx)-f(x)|+|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$
Since $\lim_{x \to 0}f(x)=L$ there exists some $\delta_{1}$ such that
$0<|x|<\delta_{1} \implies|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$. Since this must be true for any $\epsilon>0$, it must be true for some $\epsilon>|f(cx)-f(x)|+|f(x)-L|$. So, there exists some $\delta_{1}$ such that
$0<|x|<\delta_{1} \implies |f(x)-L|\leq|f(cx)-f(x)|+|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$.
Letting $\delta=\delta_{1}$ gives the desired
$0<|x|<\delta \implies |f(cx)-f(x)|+|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$.
Please tell me if I did anything invalid. Also I'm new to Calculus so please explain as simply as possible. Thanks