This is a twist on the problem commonly known to have solution $6/\pi^2$. Suppose when choosing from all natural numbers $\mathbb{N}$, the probability of choosing $n \in \mathbb{N}$ is given by $P(n)=\frac{1}{2^n}$. Now when choosing two natural numbers, what is the probability (in closed form) of choosing two coprime numbers?
Notice, the probability of choosing something divisible by $p$ is $$\frac{1}{2^p}+\frac{1}{2^{2p}}+\frac{1}{2^{3p}}+\frac{1}{2^{4p}}+\ldots=\frac{1}{2^p-1}$$
so the probability of choosing two numbers both divisible by $p$ is $$\frac{1}{(2^p-1)^2}$$
Meaning $$P(a,b;p)=1-\frac{1}{(2^p-1)^2}$$ where $P(a, b;p)$ is the probability that either $a$ or $b$ is not divisible by $p$. Then the answer I'm looking for is $$P(a,b)=\prod_{p\text{ prime}}P(a,b;p)=\prod_{p\text{ prime}}\left(1-\frac{1}{(2^p-1)^2}\right)$$ where $P(a,b)$ is the probability that $a$ and $b$ are coprime.
Anyway, I'm curious about a closed form expression for this number, similar to the original problem I mentioned. Any insight would be very helpful.
Edit
As Mark Fischler has pointed out below, this product representation assumes the events of $p|a$ and $p|b$ are independent, which should not be the case. If anyone can also explain a way of constructing a more correct probability, it would be very helpful.