In my study of ODEs I have recently encountered this monster of an integral the sum of two integrals: $ \int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{\sin(x)\sin\left(-\frac{1+A}{\sqrt{A}}\omega \tanh^{-1}\left(\frac{\cos\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)}{\sqrt{A\sin^2\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)+1}} \right)\right)}{\sqrt{A\sin^2\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)+1}}dx + \int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{\sin(x)\cos\left(-\frac{1+A}{\sqrt{A}}\omega \tanh^{-1}\left(\frac{\cos\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)}{\sqrt{A\sin^2\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)+1}} \right)\right)}{\sqrt{A\sin^2\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)+1}}dx $
Even Wolfram is having trouble with this, I was hoping someone could please tell me if I can do it analytically or numerically any way at all? It really is scary looking. Of course $\omega$ and $A$ are parameters with $A$ between 0 and 1.
Edits:
The first one (with the cosine) is zero as the great answers point out but the one with the product of two sines is a mystery.
I feel I owe an explanation: the relation to ODE comes from a previous problem I stated here dealing with the Melnikov integral here the answer changes variables from t to x.