This question already has an answer here:
Assume $f$ is Riemann integrable and further assume that $\int_a^x f=0$ for all $x$. How would I go about showing that $f$ itself is $0$ almost everywhere?
I am new to Lebesgue's measure theory so I am hoping for a somewhat elementary proof if possible?
I know that almost everywhere means all except a set of measure zero. I was wondering if I could get a point to start on? We are told $f$ is Riemann integrable, so that means by Lebesgue's criterion for Riemann integration that there are at most countably infinitely many discontinuities. Thank you!