Background Information:
Proposition 2.16 - If $f\in L^+$, then $\int f = 0$ iff $f = 0$ a.e.
Proof - Suppose $f = \sum_{j}a_j\chi_{E_j}$, then $\int f = 0$ iff $a_j = 0$ or $\mu(E_j) = 0$. In general, if $f = 0$ a.e., and $\phi$ is a simple function with $0\leq\phi\leq f$ then $\phi = 0$ a.e. and we have $$\int f = \sup_{\phi\leq f}\int \phi = 0$$ Conversely, suppose $E_n = \{f\geq \frac{1}{n}\}$, then $$\int f \geq \int \frac{1}{n}\chi_{E_n} = \frac{1}{n}\mu(E_n)$$ So, $$\mu(E_n)\leq n\int f = 0$$ then $$\mu(\{f\geq 0\}) = \mu\left(\bigcup_{n}E_n\right) = 0$$
I am pretty sure this proof is correct. My question now pertains to the Corollary of this proposition:
Question:
Corollary 2.17 - If $\{f_n\}\subset L^+$, and $f_n(x)$ increases to $f(x)$ for a.e. $x$, then $\int f = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\int f_n$.
My idea: Let $f = \sum_{1}^{n}a_j\chi_{E_j}$ then $\{E_j\}_{j}$ is a finite disjoint family of measurable functions such that $X = \bigcup_{j}E_j$. We have that $f_n(x)$ increases to $f(x)$ for a.e. $x$ this means that there is a measurable set $F$ such that $x\in F$ with $\mu(F) = 0$. Then $f_n$ increases to $f$ on $X\setminus E$ and then applying the Monotone Convergence theorem $$\int \chi_{X\setminus E}f_n\rightarrow \int \chi_{X\setminus E} f = \int f$$
My apologies if this is a bit messy. Any suggestions is greatly appreciated.