Let function $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be right-const iff $\exists_{M \in \mathbb{R}}\forall_{x,y \ge M}f(x)=f(y)$. Consider function sequence $\{f_n\}$ which every term is right-const. Determine whether $f$ must be right-const if:
- a) $\{f_n\}$ is pointwise convergent to $f$
- b) $\{f_n\}$ is uniformly convergent to $f$
I had spent much time trying to find counterexample for a) or b) but I gave up. Maybe it is possible to prove a) or b)?