Can someone explain to me why this does not constitute a proof of Fermat's Last Theorem, please?
Basically, using something I've read online, it appears you can write an equation for $(a, b, c)$ to find solutions for equations $a^n + b^n = c^n$ in the form of $$a = (u^2 - v^2)^{2/n}, \: b = (2uv)^{2/n},\: c = (u^2 + v^2)^{2/n}$$
which won't produce integer solutions for $n > 2$.
Could someone explain to me the mistake in this "proof" please?
The full work is here (there's no downloading required because it's just a PDF).
Thanks in advance