No group consists only of elements of order $2$, because the identity always has order $1$ :-)
Leaving this nitpick aside, it's well-known that a group of exponent $2$ is abelian because
$$
a(ba)b = (ab)^2 = e = a^2 b^2 = a(ab)b
$$
(followed by canceling $a$ from the left and $b$ from the right), so if the group is finite it's isomorphic with $({\bf Z/2\bf Z})^m$ for some $m$.
JasonM's argument is still preferable because it generalizes to arbitrary primes: a finite group of exponent $p$ has order $p^m$ for some $m$, else some other prime $q$ divides the group order, and then Cauchy's theorem produces an element of order $q$.