This goes up to infinity. Trying finite cases may help.

My Attempt:It seems that it is going to be $\frac{1}{18}$. My calculations show that its going near $\frac{1}{18}$.


An alternative approach to Behrouz' fine one through Euler's beta function. We have: $$\begin{eqnarray*} \sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{n!}{(n+4)!}=\sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{\Gamma(n+1)}{\Gamma(n+5)}&=&\frac{1}{\Gamma(4)}\sum_{n\geq 0}B(4,n+1)\\&=&\frac{1}{6}\int_{0}^{1}\sum_{n\geq 0}x^{n}(1-x)^3\,dx\\&=&\frac{1}{6}\int_{0}^{1}(1-x)^2\,dx\\&=&\frac{1}{6}\int_{0}^{1}x^2\,dx = \frac{1}{6}\cdot\frac{1}{3}=\color{red}{\frac{1}{18}}.\end{eqnarray*}$$

With the same approach it is straightforward to check that: $$ \sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{n!}{(n+k)!} = \color{red}{\frac{1}{(k-1)\cdot(k-1)!}}$$ for any $k\in\mathbb{N}^+$.

The same can be achieved by recognizing in the LHS a multiple of a telescopic series.

  • $\begingroup$ interesting +1.. $\endgroup$ – Behrouz Maleki Jun 13 '16 at 17:17
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks please check my answer is it true? $\endgroup$ – Taha Akbari Jun 14 '16 at 6:55
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    $\begingroup$ I like this, but I should also say that this looks like mosquito-nuking compared to Behrouz's answer. $\endgroup$ – J. M. isn't a mathematician Jun 15 '16 at 12:28
  • $\begingroup$ @J.M.: you are right, but in facts I originally gave my answer just as an alternative to Behrouz' one, as I told in my very first line. $\endgroup$ – Jack D'Aurizio Jun 15 '16 at 16:08
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    $\begingroup$ Thanks, didn't realize you can pull the $(1-x)^3$ out the sum. Interesting answer. $\endgroup$ – Ahmed S. Attaalla Aug 6 '16 at 20:13

Write $$\begin{align} {\frac{n!}{(n+4)!}}&=\frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)}=\\&=\frac{A}{(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)}-\frac{B}{(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)}\end{align}$$

which gives $(n+4)A-B(n+1)=1 \implies A=B=1/3$

Then we get a telescoping series:

$$\begin{align}\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty }{\frac{n!}{(n+4)!}}=\frac{1}{3}\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty }\left({\frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)}}-\frac{1}{(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)}\right)=\frac{1}{18}\end{align}$$

  • $\begingroup$ thanks but I surly know the answer is 1\18. note that your first equation is false $\endgroup$ – Taha Akbari Jun 13 '16 at 15:33
  • $\begingroup$ yes you are right $\endgroup$ – Behrouz Maleki Jun 13 '16 at 15:35
  • $\begingroup$ You may want to show how to decompose that fraction manually. Anyone can do it with a computer algebra system, which is of no use if this question is to be done on an exam... $\endgroup$ – imranfat Jun 13 '16 at 15:35
  • $\begingroup$ yes this can only performed witha calculator $\endgroup$ – Taha Akbari Jun 13 '16 at 15:36
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    $\begingroup$ I don't use calculator $\endgroup$ – Behrouz Maleki Jun 13 '16 at 15:38

Just a tip; For natural number $n$, $$\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k(k+1)\cdots(k+m)}=\frac{1}{m}\left(\frac{1}{1\cdot 2\cdot \cdots\cdot m} -\frac{1}{(n+1)\cdot (n+2)\cdot \cdots\cdot (n+m)}\right) $$

Now, the given infinite sum is equal to

$$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{(k-1)!}{(k+3)!}=\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k(k+1)(k+2)(k+3)}$$

by plugging in $m=3$ to the tip, we would get

$$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k(k+1)(k+2)(k+3)}=\frac{1}{3} \left( \frac{1}{1\cdot2\cdot3} -\frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)}\right)$$

Take limit, $n \to \infty$. $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k(k+1)(k+2)(k+3)}=\frac{1}{3} \left( \frac{1}{1\cdot2\cdot3} -\lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)}\right)$$ $$=\frac{1}{18}$$

How to decompose the fraction; $$\frac{1}{k(k+1)\cdots(k+m)}=\frac{1}{m}\left(\frac{1}{k\cdot (k+1)\cdot \cdots\cdot (k+m-1)} -\frac{1}{(k+1)\cdot (k+2)\cdot \cdots\cdot (k+m)}\right)$$

  • $\begingroup$ what can I do with this equation? $\endgroup$ – Taha Akbari Jun 13 '16 at 15:39
  • $\begingroup$ Plug in $m=2$, and you can get what you want! (I'll edit my answer( $\endgroup$ – zxcvber Jun 13 '16 at 15:41
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    $\begingroup$ @TahaAkbari Patience! Goodness ... :) $\endgroup$ – John Jun 13 '16 at 15:42
  • $\begingroup$ Done! It should be fine. $\endgroup$ – zxcvber Jun 13 '16 at 15:52
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks please check my answer is it true? $\endgroup$ – Taha Akbari Jun 14 '16 at 6:55




Now I write the Negative fractions like this:







And do this up to infinity.The sum of all negative fractions are:


Now we have:









  • $\begingroup$ Did you realize that your argument and Behrouz' one are the same? $\endgroup$ – Jack D'Aurizio Jun 14 '16 at 11:05
  • $\begingroup$ no they are different is my sloutio correct??????????? $\endgroup$ – Taha Akbari Jun 14 '16 at 11:26
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, your sloutio is correct. $\endgroup$ – Jack D'Aurizio Jun 14 '16 at 11:42
  • $\begingroup$ thanks for your help.Whiche answe should I accept? $\endgroup$ – Taha Akbari Jun 14 '16 at 11:46
  • $\begingroup$ It seemmmms that if I have many answers I should choose the best and I think like you $\endgroup$ – Taha Akbari Jun 14 '16 at 18:58

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