Here is a brute force answer:
With appropriate scaling, we can take $\theta =1$ without loss of generality.
Let $\sigma$ be a permutation of $1,...,n$ and $A_\sigma = \{ x \in [0,1]^n | x_{\sigma_1} > \cdots > x_{\sigma_n} \}$.
Note that $p ([0,1]^n \setminus (\cup_\sigma A_\sigma ) ) = 0$, and
$E (\max(X_1,...,X_n) 1_{A_\sigma} (X_1,...,X_n) ) = E (\max(X_1,...,X_n) 1_{A_{\sigma'}}(X_1,...,X_n) )$ for
any two permutations $\sigma, \sigma'$.
Hence $E \max(X_1,...,X_n) = n! E (\max(X_1,...,X_n) 1_{A_\sigma} (X_1,...,X_n))$ for any $\sigma$.
Let $\sigma$ be the identity permutation, then if $(X_1,...,X_n) \in A_\sigma$
we have $\max(X_1,...,X_n) = X_1$ and so
\begin{eqnarray}
E (\max(X_1,...,X_n) 1_{A_\sigma} (X_1,...,X_n)) &=& \int_{x_1=0}^1 \int_{x_2=0}^{x_1} \cdots \int_{x_n=0}^{x_{n-1}} x_1 dx_n \cdots dx_1 \\
&=& {1 \over (n+1)(n-1)!}
\end{eqnarray}
Hence $E \max(X_1,...,X_n) = { n! \over (n+1)(n-1)!} = {n \over n+1}$.